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Tuesday, July 10, 2012
Questions Related to student
Friday, July 6, 2012
Engineering Entrance Chemistry Questions
1. The weight of 10 x 1023 atoms of
oxygen is
(a) 32 gm (b) 16 amu (c) 5.34 amu
(d) 5.34 gm (e) None
2. 1.76gms' of CO2 and 1120m1 of CO at
STP are taken in an empty vessel, calculate the total mmiber of moles of molecules present in the vessel
(a) 9 x 1023 moles ()) 9 x 10-2moles
(c) 9 x 6 x 1023 moles
(d) 0.9 moles (e) None
3. 1.2grns of an inorganic base furnishes
1.02gms of hydroxyl ions during a neutralisation reaction in aqueous medium. The equivalent weight of the base is
(a) 120 (b) 56 (c) 20
(d) 10 (e) 40
4. 8.4gms of carbonate of metal on
strong heating gives 4gms of its oxide. Find the equivalent weight of the metal
(a) 20 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 12 (e) 32
5. An hydrocarbon contains 85.8% of
carbon. The weight of 5.6 litres of the same gas at STP is found to be 14gms, The molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is
(a) C21-12 (b) C2114
(c) C4H 1 a (d) C41-18 (e) C3H8
6. 1.12m1 of a gas is produced at ATP by
the action of 4.12 mg of an alcohol ROH with methyl magnesiusm iodide. The molecular mass of alcohol is
(a) 8.24 (b) 0.824 (c) 82.4
(d) 824 (e) None
7. 27g of aluminium will react
completely with
(a) 8 g of oxygen (b) 24 g of oxygen
(c) 16 g of oxygen
(d) 48 g of oxygen (e) None
8. The compound with identical crystal
structures and analogous chemical formulae are called
(a) allotropes (b) isotones (c) isomers
(d) isomorphs (e) isodiaphers
9. On reaction with hydrogen 3.6g of an
oxide of metal leaves 3.2g of metallic residue. If the atomic mass of metal is
64, the formula of metal oxide is
(a) M203 (b) M20 (c) MO
(d) MO2 (e) M30
10. The number of oxygen atoms in 0.2mole of decahydrate sodium carbonate is
(a) 1.56 x 1024 (b) 1.56 x 1023
(c) 1.56 x 1025 (d) 3.12 x 1024
(e) None
11. , Which of the following pairs of
compound illustrate law of multiple proportion?
(a) KOH, CsOH (b) H20, D20
(c) ethane, benzene (d) KC1, K.Br
(e) None
12. The percentage of hydrogen in water
and hydrogen peroxide is 11.1 and 5.9% respectively. These figures illustrate
(a) Law of multiple proportions (b)Law of conservation of proportions
(c) Law of reciprocal proportions
(d) Law of combining volumes
(e) Law of constant composition
13. A certain gaseous mixture contains
methane and sulphur dioxide in ratio of 1 : 8 by mass. The ratio of the number of molecules is
(a) 1 : 8 (b) 1 : 2 (c) I: 1
(d) 2 : 1 (e) 3 : 1
14. The balancing of chemical equation is
based on
(a)Law of combining volumes
(b) Law of multiple proportions
(c)Law of conservation of mass
(d) Law of definite proportion
(e) All of these
a) What is a geostationary satellite? b) What are parking orbits?
a) What is a geostationary satellite? b) What are parking orbits?
Ans.: a) A satellite which appears to be fixed at a place above the earth is called a geostationary satellite. A geostationary satellite has the time period round the earth equal to the rotational period of the earth about its axis ie 1 day.
The orbit of a geostationary satellite round the earth ( at a height of about 36,000 km from the earth's surface) is called the parking orbit of the satellite.
Q.12: Explain the terms (i) Ground wave (ii) Sky wave.
Ans.: i) Ground wave : If a signal transmitted from a certain point on the earth reaches some other point travelling directly along the surface of the earth it is called a ground wave. Radiovvaves having frequencies upto 1500 kHz (wavelength above 200 m) are mainly transmitted through ground because in sky they lose energy very quickly.
Sky wave m If a signal is received at some other point after reflection from the ionosphere, it is called a sky wave. Higher frequency signals are mainly transmitted through the sky because on the ground they are absorbed quickly.
greenhouse effect
The clouds act as 'blankets' of the earth. The lower atmosphere, therefore, is very rich in infrared radiation and all the objects on earth absorb it, gettingheated in the process. This phenomenon is commonly called the greenhouse effect, called so because the water droplets hanging in the atmosphere act as the glass roofs of a green house and are able to trap the radiations. The components of the solar radiation whose wavelength is shorter than those ofviolet light are quite dangerous and can cause damage to living cells. Howevar, nature has given us a protective umbrella called the ozone layer ofthe atmosphere which absorbs these harmful radiations.
If earth did not have an atmosphere would its averaoe su face tempt rat ti re be higher or lower thin what it is now?
If earth did not have an atmosphere would its averaoe su face tempt rat ti re be higher or lower thin what it is now?
Ans.: If there had been no atmosphere on the earth, the surface temperature of would
be lower, because in the absence ofamosphere greenhouse effect cannot .eke place.
!.8: Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in the aseendin E. order of their wavelength : microwaves, gamma rays, racliowaves, ultraviolet rays. Atm : (i) Gamma rays (ii) Ultraviolet rays (iii) Microwaves (iv) Radiowaves
Q.9: Long distance radio transmission uses short waves. Why?
Ans.: Long distance transmission uses short waves as they are easily reflected by ionosphere. Further, long wavelength sky waves lose their energy very quick-.
. 1 0: What is greenhouse effect? What is its practical utility?
Ans.: The atmosphere is transparent to visible radiation. The other componen --. as ultra
violet and infra:red are absorbed in different layers of the atmosphere. 7- .:Ifrared radiations produce warmth of the atmosphere, which absorbs most of it -:ne sun. The earth is warmed by whatever little radiation it receives. Consequerrf, . the earth itself emits the infrared radiation. The infrared radiation emitted from the f.-.1-..11 cannot cross the lower atmospheric layers of the earth's atmosphere which ref...-ers it back. The clouds also act as very good reflectors and prevent the radiation Ear:- -:scaping.
What are the characteristics of the three chief kinds of radiations that radioactive nuclei emit ?
The three important emanations from radioacdve nuclei are -
1. a - rays which are composed of helium nuclei.
2. 3 - rays which are streams of electrons.
3. 1( - rays which are electromagnetic radiations.
Their main properties may be summarised as follows.
a - rays Material particles - each particle is a helium nucleus - deflected by magnetic and electric fields - speed one-tenth of the speed of light penetrating power low due to heavy mass.
- rays :- Material particles - streams of electrons - deflected by magnetic and electric fields - speed very nearly that of light - high penetrating power.
- rays :- Electromagnetic radiations - speed that of light - unaffected by magnetic and electric fields - most dangerous and most penetrating.
2: a) If a radioactive nuclide of an alkaline earth element undergoes a - particle emission, in what group of the Periodic Table will the daughter element be found?
b) If a radioactive nuclide of group 15 element undergoes 3 - particle emission in what groupswill the daughter element be found
At!.s. a) When a radioactive elements emits an a - particle, the daughter element formed will have a mass number which is 4 units less than that of the parent, and an atomic number which is two units less than that of the parent. If the radioactive nuclide belongs to the family of alkaline earth metals, after loss of 2 units of atomic number, the daughter element formed will be a member of the family of noble gases (zero group).
b) Emission of i3 ray is accompanied by increase of one unit of atomic number without any change in mass number. Therefore the daughter element formed will be an isobar of the parent. If the radioactive parent belongs to Cr 15, the daughter element formed will belong to Gr 16.
What are the important properties of electromagnetic waves?
:Ans.: Some ofthe chief characteristics of electromagnetic waves are
(i) In electromagnetic waves, the directions ofoscillationnn ofthe electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other as well as to the direction of propagation of the wave.
The speed of an em wave.in space is about 3 X 108 miS while in any other medium it depends on the electric and magnetic properties of the medium and not on the amplitude of the field variation.
The electric and magnetic field variations are in. phase, ie both attain theI maxima and minima at the same time and place.
Define the following terms and give examples. (a) Antibiotics and (b) Tranquillizers. acid dyes and basic dyes.
Define the following terms and give examples.
(a) Antibiotics and (b) Tranquillizers.
Ans. : (a) Antibiotics :- The substances which are prodcued by certainanicro-organisms (fungi bacteria and moulds) and use to inhibit the growth or to kill the micro-organism are known as antibiotics. Penicillin was the first antibiotic which was discovered by Fleming in 1929. Chloramphenicol is a broad spectrum antibiotic. Chloramphenical is used to cure actute fever, typhoid, urinary infection and dysentry etc.
(b) Tranquillizers :- These are the substances which effect the central nervous systern and cure mental diseases. They have the sedative and calming effect but do not induce sleep. But if any drug induces sleep also, it is known as hypnotics. Both tranquillizers and hypnotics are present in sleeping pills. Some important tranqiiillizers are reserpine, luminal and seconal.
What is the difference between acid dyes and basic dyes.
Acid Dye
1. They contain sodium salt oforganic acids, such as sulphonic acid, car- boxylic acid and phenols.
2. They are used for dyeing natural silk, wool and nylon but cannot dye cot- ton fibre.
3. The acidic groups serve as reactive points for fixing the dye to the fibre
4. Examples: Methyl orange, Methyl red.
Basic Dye
They contain the salt of organic bases i.e., - NH2 group, - NR2 group.
They are used to dye nylon , wool, leather, paper, polyester as well as cotton.
in acidic solution, the cations of -
or -NR2 groups are the reactive sites and are used to attach to the fabric.
Examples: Malachite green.
Friday, June 22, 2012
EXAMINATION, OCTOBER/ NOVEMBER 2000 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (R)
MAHATMA GHANDHI UNIVERSITY (MG)
B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATION, OCTOBER/ NOVEMBER 2000
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (R)
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (R)
Part A (Short Questions)
1. What are the different aspects that should be specified in an
SRS (Software Requirement specification )?
2. What are the
major outputs in a development project which follows the waterfall model?
3. What are
software metrics ? What is the role of metrics in project management ?
4. What is the use
of decision table ?
5. What is an
object model ?'What is a link attribute ? Explain with examples.
6. Explain
generalization and inheritance.
7. What is
structured programming and why is it important?
8. Explain what is
UML.
9. Explain how code
reviews and walk through are done.
10. Explain what is
meant by a Test Plan. (10 x 4 = 40 marks)
Part B
11. (a) Enumerate
and explain the steps involved in planning and designing a software. Or
(b) (i) Discuss the role of prototyping in
a software development process.
(ii)
Differentiate between incremental prototype and throw away prototype.
12. (a) Explain the
important steps involved in Object-Oriented Designs tasking a real world
application. Or
(b) Explain the major differences and
similarities between OMT and Structural Analysis / Structural Design (SA/SD)
13. (a) Describe
Booch's design methodology. Or
(b) Write short notes on: (i) Analysis
model (ii) Design model.
(iii) Implementation
model (iv) Test model.
14. (a) (i) What is Program Documentation ? What is its
significance in program development and use ? Discuss the methods of
documenting a program.
(ii) What is the role of Information
Hiding in Software Development? How can it be achieved? Or
(b) (i) Explain what do you mean by
modularity with reference to a software system.
(ii) Explain the stepwise refinement
approach to software development.
15. (a) Distinguish
between
(i) Testing
and Debugging a software.
(ii) Verification
and Validation of software.
(iii) Software
error and Software failure. Or
(b) What are the different levels of
testing and the goals of the different levels ? Explain how they are conducted.
(5 x 12 = 60 marks)
FOR COMPLETE PRINTED QUESTION PAPER SET
CONTACT: 9745451920 Rs:50/-
MAHATMA GHANDHI UNIVERSITY (MG) B. TECH. ECH DEGREE EXAMINATION,1VIAY 2002 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (R)
MAHATMA
GHANDHI UNIVERSITY (MG)
B. TECH. ECH DEGREE
EXAMINATION,1VIAY 2002
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (R)
Part A
Part A
1. What are the various phases in software development ?
2. What are the major outputs in a development project which
follows the waterfall model
3. Explain the concept of dynamic modelling.
4. Explain what is meant by Universal Modelling Language.
5. Explain some advantages and disadvantages of conventional
design method.
6. Explain the concept data flow diagram.
7. Explain the top down approach of programming.
8. Explain what is meant by symbolic execution.
9. What is meant by structural testing ?
10. Explain, what is meant by a test plan. (10 x 4 = 40 marks)
Part B
11. (a) Explain the various steps involved in planning and
designing a software. Or
(b) (i) Which of the
software development process models would you chose. Justify your answer.
(ii) Which
process model can be used for on-line reservation would you chose. Justify your
answer.
12. (a) Explain the concept of data abstraction. What are the
important characteristics of an OOP language ? Discuss the support offered by
an OOP language to the process of software development based on object oriented
design. Or
(b) Explain the major
difference and similarities between OMT and Structural Analysis./ structural
design.
13. (a) Explain the Boach's methodology. Or
(b) Explain the
Jacobsons methodoloay.
14. (a) Explain what do you mean modularity with reference to
software system. ,Explain the stepwise refinement approach to software
development. . Or
(i) Explain the various guidelines for software
documentation.
(ii) Explain
how code reviews and walk through are done.
15. (a) What is meant by software reliability ? How do you
estimate it Explain the various software reliability models. Or
(b) (i) Distinguish
between black box and white box testing. (ii) Explain the. following terms
related to software testing :
(i) Functional and structural testing.
(ii) Safety and Reliability. (iii) Fault and Error
(iv) Error and
failure. (5 x 12 = 60 marks)
FOR COMPLETE PRINTED QUESTION PAPER SET
CONTACT: 9745451920 Rs:50/-
OCTOBER / NOVEMBER 2000 COMPUTER NETWORKS (R)
MAHATMA
GHANDHI UNIVERSITY (MG)
B.Teeh. DEGREE
EXAMINATION,
OCTOBER
/ NOVEMBER 2000
COMPUTER
NETWORKS (R)
(New
Scheme - 1997 admissions)
Time: Three Hours Maximum 100 Marks
Part
A
Answer all questions.
1. Discuss the bus network
topology.
2. Show the important layers
of the ISO model in a block diagram.
3. Explain briefly the
features of ISDN.
4. Discuss the important
transmission media for digital data transfer.
5. Compare analog
transmission with digital transmission.
6. Discuss pure ALOHA.
7. Discuss the use of MAC
addresses.
8. Explain the features of
UDP packets.
9. Discuss the features of
transport layer in ISO0 model. arks)
10. What is -virtual terminal
? (10 x 4 = 40 marks)
Part B
Answer all questions. All
questions carry equal marks.
11. (a) Discuss the various
network topologies with diagrams. Or
(b) Explain the various physical media used
for computer networking.
12. (a) Discuss the various
routing algorithms and the hardware used for the same. Or
(b) Explain the problem of congestion and
the methods used for overcoming these.
13. (a) Discuss the various
ALOHA schemes. Or
(b) Explain the LAN and AN features.
14. (a) Discuss, the packet
switcWhing schemes currently used on the Internet Or
(b) Explain the implementation issues of
the Physical layer protocol.
15. (a) Discuss the need of
Cryptography in data communication. Or
(b) Discuss the implementation of the
electronic x 12 mail.
(5 x 12 = 60 marks)
FOR COMPLETE PRINTED QUESTION PAPER SET
CONTACT: 9745451920 Rs:50/-
COMPUTER NETWORKS (R) B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, APRIL / MAY 2001
MAHATMA GHANDHI UNIVERSITY (MG)
B.Tech.
DEGREE EXAMINATION, APRIL / MAY 2001
Branch: Computer Science Engineering
Seventh Semester, (New Scheme)
COMPUTER NETWORKS (R)
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 100 Marks
Part
A
Answer
all questions.
1. Discuss the star
network toology. the IS
2. Discuss the
functioning of the Physical Layer thO model
3. Discuss what is
meant by routing table.
4. Discuss datagram
concept a applied to network layer.
5. Discuss the
nature of IP packets and their headers.
7. Explain
connectionless protocol with a typical example.
8. Explain the FTP
service.
9. Discuss the
implementation of access management as applied to the presentation layer.
10. Explain the
sliding window protocol. (10 x 4 =
40 marks)
Part B
Answer all
questions.
All questions carry
equal marks.
11. (a) With a neat
block diagram, explain briefly the ISO Jaye model.
Or
(b) Compare analog transmission and digital
transmission with special reference to ISDN.
12. (a) Discuss the
concept of a data packets and their formats tis used in computer networks.
Or
(b) I xplain the various hardware
components used for computer data communication.
13. (a) Discuss
satellite packet broadcasting in brief
Or
(b) Discuss the IEEE and 802.3 standards
for LAN.
14. (a) Explain the
session layer services and their implementation. Or
(b) Discuss the services implemented in the
transport layer and the nature of the implementation.
15. (a) Discuss the need for data compression
techniques the methods used for it as applied to computer communication.
Or
(b) Explain
the nil poitant services offered by the presentation layer. (5 x 12 = 60 marks)
FOR COMPLETE PRINTED QUESTION PAPER SET
CONTACT: 9745451920 Rs:50/-
OCTOBER / NOVEMBER - 2001 COMPUTER NETWORKS (R)
MAHATMA GHANDHI UNIVERSITY (MG)
B.Tech. DEGREE
EXAMINATION,
OCTOBER / NOVEMBER - 2001
OCTOBER / NOVEMBER - 2001
COMPUTER NETWORKS (R)
Maximum: 100 Marks
Time:
Three Hours
Part
A
Answer
all questions.
1. What is MAC sublayer ?
2. Explain about design issues of networks.
3. Compare packet switching and circuit switching .
4. What is rnultipath routing ?
5. Compare pure aloha and slotted alystems.
6. What are packet radio networks ?
7. Explain how performs
synchronisation on. w sessions laye
8. What is remote procedure call `?
9. Describe file transfer protocol.
10. Describe different methods. fent data re
(10 x 4 ---- 40 marks)
Part B
11. Explain different methods to overcome dea o .
12. Explain about different IEEE standards
13. Explain about aloha systems.
14. Explain the role of session layer.
15. Explain mail server
16. Explain the role of transport layer.
(5 x 12
--- 60 marks)
FOR COMPLETE PRINTED QUESTION PAPER SET
CONTACT: 9745451920 Rs:50/-
COMPUTER NETWORKS (R) B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, APRIL / MAY 2001
MAHATMA GHANDHI UNIVERSITY (MG)
B.Tech.
DEGREE EXAMINATION, APRIL / MAY 2001
Branch: Computer Science Engineering
COMPUTER NETWORKS (R)
(New
Scheme - 1997 admission onwards)
Time:
Three Hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Part A
Answer
all questions.
1. Discuss the star network toology. the IS
2. Discuss the functioning of the
Physical Layer thO model
3. Discuss what is meant by routing
table.
4. Discuss datagram concept a applied to
network layer.
5. Differentiate between bridges and
routers.
6. Discuss the nature of IP packets and
their headers.
7. Explain connectionless protocol with
a typical example.
8. Explain the FTP service.
9. Discuss the implementation of access
management as applied to the presentation layer.
10. Explain the sliding window protocol. (10 x 4 = 40 marks)
Part B
Answer all questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
11. (a) With a neat block diagram,
explain briefly the ISO Jaye model.
Or
(b) Compare analog transmission and digital transmission with special
reference to ISDN.
12. (a) Discuss the concept of a data
packets and their formats tis used in computer networks.
Or
(b) I xplain the various hardware components used for computer data
communication.
13. (a) Discuss satellite packet
broadcasting in brief
Or
(b) Discuss the IEEE and 802.3 standards for LAN.
14. (a) Explain the session layer
services and their implementation. Or
(b) Discuss the services implemented in the transport layer and the
nature of the implementation.
15. (a) Discuss
the need for data compression techniques the methods used for it as applied to
computer communication.
Or
(b) Explain the nil poitant
services offered by the presentation layer. (5
x 12 = 60 marks)
FOR COMPLETE PRINTED QUESTION PAPER SET CONTACT:
9745451920 Rs:50/-
COMPUTER NETWORKS (R, T) B. TECH. DEGREE EXAMINATION, MAY 2005
MAHATMA GHANDHI UNIVERSITY (MG)
B.
TECH. DEGREE EXAMINATION, MAY 2005
Sixth, Semester
Sixth, Semester
Branch: Computer Science and Engineering,
Information Technology
COMPUTER NETWORKS (R, T)
(New Scheme-2002 admission)
Time: Three Hours Maximum .100 Marks
Answer all questions.
Part A
Part A
1. What are the advantages of layered architecture ?
2. What are some of thephysjcal media that ethernet
can run over
3. Describe any one method of error detection
4. Explain CSMA. •
5. Explain the use of routing algorithms.
6. What are the causes for congestion in networks ?
7. Distinguish between Connection Oriented and
Connectionless Services.
8. Briefly explain the functions of transport layer.
9. Give an over view of blue tooth.
10. What is a mobile switching centre? (10 x 4 =- 40 marks)
Part-B
11. (a) Explain in detail the ISDN system
architecture.
Or
(b)
Distinguish clearly between Hubs, Bridges and Routers.
12. (a) Explain different multiple access protocols.
Or
(b)
Explain in detail the slotted ALOHA protocol.
13. (a) Explain the causes of congestion and methods
to avoid them in networks.
Or
(b)
Describe in detail the leaky bucket algorithm.
14. (a) Compare ATM with TCP/IP networks.
Or
(b)
Describe different protocols used by the transport layer in ensuring reliable
data transfer.
15. (a) Explain blue-tooth technology architecture.
(b) Write
down different applications of the interact and about the protocols used for
each application.
(5 x 12 60 marks)
FOR COMPLETE PRINTED QUESTION PAPER SET
CONTACT: 9745451920 Rs:50/-
Sunday, June 3, 2012
SET (State Eligibility Test) Questions and answers
3. After attending an inservice cource you are offered one book from among the four listed below. Which one will be your first preference?
(a) A novel written by a famous author.
(b) A book on innovative instructional strategies
(c) The autobiography of your favourite political leader.
(d) A book on the philosophy of Rousseau. 4. On a free evening you have the choice to
6. A boy continues to talk in the class with his mates even after being warned. What action would you take?
(a) Send him out of the class room
(b) Talk more loudly and attract his attention
(c) Make the whole class sit quiet for five minutes, with folded hands.
(d) Arrange a counseling session for the boy.
7. A boy who is deeply interested in sports is found not to show progress in academic studies. What step will you take inorder to help him?
(a) Encourage him to concentrate on sports even at the risk of neglecting academic studies.
(b) Provide him compensatory programmes to make up for the backwardness in studies.
(c)Convince him that it is better to suspend sports activities till the examinations are over.
(d) Don't interfere and allow him to follow his own course of action.
8. Some students are found to buy unhygienic food items from the school gate. What is its remedy?
(a) Force the peddlers concerned vacate the school gate
(b) Arrange for explaining the harmful effects of the practice in the school assembly.
(c) Inform the principal about this.
(d) Announce that those who do so will be severely punished.
9. In the Parent Teacher Association meeting, some parents point out that your pupils have complained that they do not understand the topic clearly. What will be your reaction?
a) Identify the pupils and schold them for complaining child to take a decision
11. A decision about an issue taken by you has been criticised by a large number of your colleagues. What will you do under such a situation?
a) Accept their suggestions and change your stand
b) Stick on to your original stand point
c) Gather support for your stand from other friends
d) Study their points of view and accept if you are convinced
12. You and your friend send entries for an educational competition. Your friend wins a prize, but not you. Other colleagues cut jokes about this. What will be your reaction?
a) Congratulate the winner and wait for the next chance
b) Tell the colleagues that other friend won it by political influence
c) Ask the colleagues to study the entries and pass a judgment
d) Write to the organizers about the injustice and favoritism
13. The meaning of a phenomenon is found to be vague for students. What step would you suggest to make its meaning definite?
a) Ask them to give their own explanation
b) Use some concrete mediator that could help in visualising the phenomenon
c) Explain it again and again until everybody understands it
d) Advise them to seek the help of some expert
14. Which of the following learning experiences do you think most appropriate to the developmental stage of a sixteen year old learner, while learning a principle?
a) Participating in physical activities depicting the principle
b) Examining a diagram which illustrate the application of the principle
c) Arrive at the principle inductively and
19. Which of the following activities world help a teacher best, to make communication effective?
A. use of instructional aides where ever possible
B. help given to students to get meaning out of what he teaches
C. asking questions in between teaching with a view to evaluate
D. help given to students for finding the correct answers to questions.
20. "Truth in that which works" is a saying often quoted in relation to the philosophy of:
A. Realism
B. Pragmatism
C. Idealism
D. Naturalism.
21. Open Universities have been started become of:
A. economic stringency
B. demand for higher education
2. Name the Indian who has been appointed as the Vice President of Interpol?
(a) H. T. Sangliana
(b) Joginder Singh
(c) I.K. Govind
(d) P.C. Sharma Ans:d.
3. What is the motto of Afro- Asian games?
(a) Swifter-Higher-Stronger
(b) Ever onwards
(c) Two continents, one spirit
(d) None of these
Ans;c.
4. Name the second largest island?
(a) Borneo
(b) Greenland
(c) Madagascar
(d) New Guinea
Ans:d.
23) On a free evening, you have the choice to attend one of the tour programmes taking place in your town. Which will be your first preference?
(a) Screening of a famous movie
(b) A recital of their poems by five well known poets
(c) A seminar of academicians on issue in contemporary education.
(d) An exhibition of agricultural products
5. An insignificant issue develops into a serious conflict between a section of your students and a group of students in a neighbouring school. How will you respond?
(a) Will not involve in the issue at all.
(b) Support the students of your school
(c) Support the students of the other
10. A pupil facing a problem asks the teacher 'what shall I do?' The teacher should:
a) Provide the pupil with course of action after considering his abilities
b) tell the pupil what he would do if he were in the pupils place
c) ask the pupil to get the advice of his parents
d) have an intimate discussion with the pupil and provide insight to enable the
apply it deductively while solving problematic situations
d) Memorising the principle for use on future occasions
15. Which of the strategies is the most important for enhancing the level of mastering in learning?
a) Providing attractive incentive to high achievers
b) Providing continuous in-service training to teachers
c) Adopting the strategy of diagnosis and remediation while imparting instruction
d) Use of technological gadgets to make instruction dynamic
Ans: C
24. Cognitive field psychology does not accept the practice of learning through
A. logical differentiation
B. meaningful generalizations
C. purposeful restructuring
D. piece meal learning
Ans: D
25. Education should give stress on desirable changes in:
A. cognitive domain
B. affective domain
C. psychomotor domain
D. all the above domains.
Ans: D
9. The Australian Cricket Player who is the new Aussies Tourism Ambassador to India?
(a) Steve Waugh
(b) Shane Warne
(c) David Boon
(d) Mark Waugh
Ans: A
10. The first City to implement Conditional Access System (CAS)?
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai,
(c) Kolkotta
(d) Chennai
Ans:(d).
Saturday, May 26, 2012
UPSC Civil Service Examination ZOOLOGY
PAPER – I
1. Non-chordata and Chordata:
(a) Classification and relationship of various phyla up to subclasses:
Acoelomate and Coelomate, Protostomes and Deuterostomes, Bilateria
and Radiata; Status of Protista, Parazoa, Onychophora and
Hemichordata; Symmetry.
(b) Protozoa: Locomotion, nutrition, reproduction, sex; General features
and life history of Paramaecium, Monocystis, Plasmodium and
Leishmania.
(c) Porifera: Skeleton, canal system and reproduction.
(d) Cnidaria: Polymorphism, defensive structures and their mechanism;
coral reefs and their formation; metagenesis; general features and
life history of Obelia and Aurelia.
(e) Platyhelminthes: Parasitic adaptation; general features and life history
of Fasciola and Taenia and their pathogenic symptoms.
(f) Nemathelminthes: General features, life history, parasitic adaptation
of Ascaris and Wuchereria.
(g) Annelida: Coelom and metamerism; modes of life in polychaetes;
general features and life history of Nereis, earthworm and leach.
(h) Arthropoda: Larval forms and parasitism in Crustacea; vision and
respiration in arthropods (Prawn, cockroach and scorpion);
modification of mouth parts in insects (cockroach, mosquito, housefly,
honey bee and butterfly); metamorphosis in insect and its hormonal
regulation, social behaviour of Apis and termites.
(i) Mollusca: Feeding, respiration, locomotion, general features and life
history of Lamellidens, Pila and Sepia, torsion and detorsion in
gastropods.
(j) Echinodermata: Feeding, respiration, locomotion, larval forms, general
features and life history of Asterias.
(k) Protochordata: Origin of chordates; general features and life history
of Branchiostoma and Herdmania.
(l) Pisces: Respiration, locomotion and migration.
(m) Amphibia: Origin of tetrapods, parental care, paedomorphosis.
(n) Reptilia; Origin of reptiles, skull types, status of Sphenodon and
crocodiles.
(o) Aves: Origin of birds, flight adaptation, migration.
(p) Mammalia: Origin of mammals, dentition, general features of egg
laying mammals, pouched-mammals, aquatic mammals and
primates, endocrine glands (pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal,
pancreas, gonads) and their interrelationships.
(q) Comparative functional anatomy of various systems of vertebrates
(integument and its derivatives, endoskeleton, locomotory organs,
digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system including
heart and aortic arches, urino-genital system, brain and sense organs
(eye and ear).
2. Ecology:
(a) Biosphere: Concept of biosphere; biomes, Biogeochemical cycles,
Human induced changes in atmosphere including green house effect,
ecological succession, biomes and ecotones, community ecology.
(b) Concept of ecosystem; structure and function of ecosystem, types
of ecosystem, ecological succession, ecological adaptation.
(c) Population; characteristics, population dynamics, population
stabilization.
(d) Biodiversity and diversity conservation of natural resources.
(e) Wildlife of India.
(f) Remote sensing for sustainable development.
(g) Environmental biodegradation, pollution and its impact on biosphere
and its prevention.
3. Ethology:
(a) Behaviour: Sensory filtering, reponsiveness, sign stimuli, learning and
memory, instinct, habituation, conditioning, imprinting.
(b) Role of hormones in drive; role of pheromones in alarm spreading;
crypsis, predator detection, predator tactics, social hierarchies in
primates, social organization in insects.
(c) Orientation, navigation, homing, biological rhythms, biological clock,
tidal, seasonal and circadian rhythms.
(d) Methods of studying animal behaviour including sexual conflict,
selfishness, kinship and altruism.
4. Economic Zoology:
(a) Apiculture, sericulture, lac culture, carp culture, pearl culture, prawn
culture, vermiculture.
(b) Major infectious and communicable diseases (malaria, filaria,
tuberculosis, cholera and AIDS) their vectors, pathogens and
prevention.
(c) Cattle and livestock diseases, their pathogen (helminthes) and vectors
(ticks, mites, Tabanus, Stomoxys).
(d) Pests of sugar cane (Pyrilla perpusiella) oil seed (Achaea janata)
and rice (Sitophilus oryzae).
(e) Transgenic animals.
(f) Medical biotechnology, human genetic disease and genetic
counselling, gene therapy.
(g) Forensic biotechnology.
5. Biostatistics:
Designing of experiments; null hypothesis; correlation, regression,
distribution and measure of central tendency, chi square, student-test, Ftest
(one-way & two-way F-test).
6. Instrumentation Methods:
(a) Spectrophotometer, phase contrast and fluorescence microscopy,
radioactive tracer, ultra centrifuge, gel electrophoresis, PCR, ELISA,
FISH and chromosome painting.
(b) Electron microscopy (TEM, SEM).
PAPER - II
1. Cell Biology:
(a) Structure and function of cell and its organelles (nucleus, plasma
membrane, mitochondria, Golgi bodies, endoplasmic reticulum,
ribosomes, and lysosomes), cell division (mitosis and meiosis), mitotic
spindle and mitotic apparatus, chromosome movements,
chromosome type polytene and lambrush, organization of chromatin,
heterochromatin, Cell cycle regulation.
(b) Nucleic acid topology, DNA motif, DNA replication, transcription, RNA
processing, translation, protein foldings and transport.
2. Genetics:
(a) Modern concept of gene, split gene, genetic regulation, genetic code.
(b) Sex chromosomes and their evolution, sex determination in Drosophila
and man.
(c) Mendel’s laws of inheritance, recombination, linkage, multiple alleles,
genetics of blood groups, pedigree analysis, hereditary diseases in
man.
(d) Mutations and mutagenesis.
(e) Recombinant DNA technology; plasmid, cosmid, artificial
chromosomes as vectors, transgenic, DNA cloning and whole animal
cloning (principles and methods).
(f) Gene regulation and expression in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(g) Signal molecules, cell death, defects in signaling pathway and
consequences.
(h) RFLP, RAPD and AFLP and application of RFLP in DNA finger printing,
ribozyme technologies, human genome project, genomics and
protomics.
3. Evolution:
(a) Theories of origin of life.
(b) Theories of evolution; Natural selection, role of mutations in evolution,
evolutionary patterns, molecular drive, mimicry, variation, isolation
and speciation.
(c) Evolution of horse, elephant and man using fossil data.
(d) Hardy-Weinberg Law.
(e) Continental drift and distribution of animals.
4. Systematics: Zoological nomenclature, international code, cladistics,
molecular taxonomy and biodiversity.
5. Biochemistry:
(a) Structure and role of carbohydrates, fats, fatty acids and cholesterol,
proteins and amino-acids, nucleic acids. Bioenergetics.
b) Glycolysis and Kreb cycle, oxidation and reduction, oxidative
phosphorylation, energy conservation and release, ATP cycle, cyclic
AMP – its structure and role.
(c) Hormone classification (steroid and peptide hormones), biosynthesis
and functions.
(d) Enzymes: types and mechanisms of action.
(e) Vitamins and co-enzymes
(f) Immunoglobulin and immunity.
6. Physiology (with special reference to mammals):
(a) Composition and constituents of blood; blood groups and Rh factor
in man, factors and mechanism of coagulation, iron metabolism, acidbase
balance, thermo-regulation, anticoagulants.
(b) Haemoglobin: Composition, types and role in transport of oxygen
and carbon dioxide.
(c) Digestion and absorption: Role of salivary glands, liver, pancreas
and intestinal glands.
(d) Excretion: nephron and regulation of urine formation; osmo-regulation
and excretory product
(e) Muscles: Types, mechanism of contraction of skeletal muscles, effects
of exercise on muscles.
(f) Neuron: nerve impulse – its conduction and synaptic transmission,
neurotransmitters.
(g) Vision, hearing and olfaction in man.
(h) Physiology of reproduction, puberty and menopause in human.
7. Developmental Biology:
(a) Gametogenesis; spermatogenesis, composition of semen, in vitro
and in vivo capacitation of mammalian sperm, Oogenesis, totipotency;
fertilization, morphogenesis and morphogen, blastogenesis,
establishment of body axes formation, fate map, gestulation in frog
and chick; genes in development in chick, homeotic genes,
development of eye and heart, placenta in mammals.
(b) Cell lineage, cell-to cell interaction, Genetic and induced
teratogenesis, role of thyroxine in control of metamorphosis in
amphibia, paedogenesis and neoteny, cell death, aging.
(c) Developmental genes in man, in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer,
cloning.
(d) Stem cells: Sources, types and their use in human welfare.
(e) Biogenetic law.
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